Forum

I am confused.

The Alberta Traffic Safety Act regulations (304/2002) state in section 22 (2)

(2) Where a highway has 2 or more traffic lanes on the same side
of the centre line for vehicles travelling in the same direction, a
person driving a vehicle that is

(a) overtaking another vehicle travelling in the same direction
may pass on the right or left of the other vehicle if there is
a traffic lane available for passing to the right or the left of
the traffic lane being used by the vehicle being overtaken,

or (b) being overtaken by another vehicle travelling in the same
direction shall keep the vehicle being overtaken in the
traffic lane in which that person is driving so as to allow
the overtaking vehicle free passage in the traffic lane to
the right or the left of the traffic lane in which the vehicle
being overtaken is travelling.

The regulation however, defines a traffic lane in this way;

(i) outside an urban area, a longitudinal division of a
roadway into a strip of sufficient width to
accommodate the passage of a single line of vehicles
but does not include a parking lane, and
(ii) inside an urban area, a longitudinal division of a
roadway into a strip of sufficient width to
accommodate the passage of a single line of vehicles,

whether or not the division is indicated by lines on the
road surface.

MY QUESTION; When another vehicle overtakes me in the lane that I am in and passes me WITHOUT CHANGING LANES is he in contravention of this section?